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Showing posts with label Policy / Guideline. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Policy / Guideline. Show all posts

Dec 23, 2023

Clarification - “Regular Employees” for appearing GDCE—Minimum Service Conditions

RBE No.112/2023

भारत सरकार/GOVERNMENT OF INDIA रेल मंत्रालय/MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS (रेलवे बोर्ड/RAILWAY BOARD)

No. E(NG)I/2023/PM1/15 New Delhi, dated 06.10.2023 The General Manager (P), All Zonal Railways & PUs.

Sub: Clarification on “Regular Employees” for appearing GDCE—prescribing minimum service conditions for serving Railway employee.

Ref: i) East Coast Railway’s letter No. ECoR-HQ/PER dated 20.09.2023. ii) East Coast Railway’s letter No. ECor-HQ/PERS (R) /16/2021(28/20230 dated 03.10.2023. iii)Railway Board’s letter No. E(NG)I/92/PM2/16 dated 20.08.93(RBE No. 129/93).

****

Attention is invited to Board’s letter No. Railway Board’s letter No. E(NG)I/PM1/12 dated 20.06.2023(RBE No. 80/2023) wherein instructions were issued for conducting General Departmental Competitive Examination(GDCE) for filling up of 25% of the Direct Recruitment Quota Vacancies.

One of the Zonal Railways has raised a doubt as to whether 02 years’ minimum service condition is required for serving Railway employees for appearing in GDCE Examination. It has also been observed that different Railways are following different minimum service condition in this round of GDCE.

The issue of prescribing any minimum residency period to become eligible for future GDCEs is still under deliberation in this office. However, on the basis of precedence and practice followed all along by most Railways in terms of the instructions of RBE 129/93, it is clarified that while reiterating that regular employees are eligible, no minimum service condition has now been prescribed for appearing in this round of GDCE examination. Zonal Railways who have already advertised the 02 years service to be eligible for GDCE, are also advised to issue corrigendums to remove the 2 year restriction and re-invite applications giving a reasonable time to the employees who may have been excluded earlier on this account to apply and then scrutinize the same and finalize their list of eligibles.

Zonal Railways may please ensure that this fresh process should be completed in a time bound manner of not later than one month.

This disposes of f East Coast Railway’s letter No. ECoR-HQ/PER dated 20.09.2023.

Hindi Version will follow.

Please acknowledge receipt. (Sanjay Kumar) Deputy Director Estt.(N) Railway Board E-mail: sanjay.kumar6[at]gov.in Original Order

Aug 4, 2023

GDCE Exam Quota Recruitment Process & Syllabus (ALP & TECHNICIANS POSTS)

Only single online application (common to all the notified posts - ALP & Technicians) has to be submitted by the candidate through the link provided on the official website of RRC. The entire recruitment process shall involve CBT, Computer Based Aptitude Test and Document Verification as applicable.

The CBT shall have two parts viz. Part A and Part B as detailed below.

PART - A

Duration: 90 Minutes & (120 Minutes for eligible PwBD candidates accompanied with Scribe) No of Questions: 100

The marks scored in Part A alone shall be used for short listing of candidates for further stages of recruitment process subject to the condition that the candidate is securing qualifying mark in Part B.

The syllabus for Part A shall be as below:

1. Mathematics: Number system. BODMAS. LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion. Decimals, Fractions. Percentages. Mensuration. Time and Work: Time and Distance. Simple and Compound Interest. Profit and Loss. Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry. Elementary Statistics, Square Root, Age Calculations. Calendar & Clock, Pipes & Cistern etc.

2. General Intelligence and Reasoning: Analogies. Alphabetical and Number Series, Coding and Decoding. Mathematical operations. Relationships, Syllogism. Jumbling, Venn Diagram, Data Interpretation and Sufficiency. Conclusions and decision making. Similarities and differences, Analytical reasoning. Classification. Directions. Statement — Arguments and Assumptions etc.

3. Basic Science and Engineering: The broad topics that are covered under this shall be Engineering Drawing (Projections, Views, Drawing Instruments. Lines. Geometric figures, Symbolic Representation), Units, Measurements. Mass Weight and Density, Work Power and Energy, Speed and Velocity. Heat and Temperature, Basic Electricity, Levers and Simple Machines, Occupational Safety and Health, Environment Education, IT Literacy etc.

  1. General Awareness on Current Affairs in Science & Technology. Sports, Culture, Personalities, Economics, Politics and any other subjects of importance.

PART-B

Duration: 60 Minutes & (80 Minutes for eligible PwDD candidates accompanied with Scribe)

No of Questions: 75

Qualifying Mark: 35% (This is applicable to all candidates and no relaxation is permissible)

This part is qualifying in nature & shall have questions from the trade syllabus prescribed by Director General of Employment & Training (DGET). Candidates with ITI / Trade Apprenticeship qualification will be required to appear in the section having questions from the relevant trade. Candidates holding Degree. Diploma having eligibility for the posts of ALP have to select relevant trade from the list of trades listed against their engineering discipline.

Candidates who do not have ITI/Act Apprentice/Diploma qualifications & have qualified 10+2 with Physics & Mathematics will be eligible for the posts of Tech – III / Telecommunication & Tech-III/Signal only. They should choose a special trade "Physics & Maths". If, they choose any other trade, they will not be considered for any of the posts. The Physics & Maths trade shall have questions on Physics and Mathematics of 10+2 standard.

Candidates who do not have ITI/Act Apprentice qualifications but have Diploma/Degree in various specified streams will be considered for the post of ALP only. Such candidates should choose their trades for Part-B of the CBT.

The trade syllabus can be obtained from the DGET website. The relevant trades for various 10+2 / diploma/engineering discipline for appearing in the qualifying test is as below:

1. Engineering Discipline (Diploma or Degree) of Electrical Engineering & combination of various streams of Electrical Engineering, Relevant trade for PART B Qualifying Test to be selected from Electrician / Instrument Mechanic / Wiremen / Winder (Armature)/ Refrigeration & Air Conditioning Mechanic

2. Electronics Engineering and combination of various streams of Electronics Engineering, Relevant trade for PART B Qualifying Test to be selected from Electronics Mechanic/ Mechanic Radio & TV

3. Mechanical Engineering and combination of various streams of Mechanical Engineering, Relevant trade for PART B Qualifying Test to be selected from Fitter/ Mechanic Motor Vehicle/ Tractor Mechanic/ Mechanic Diesel/ Turner/ Machinist/ Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Mechanic/ Heat Engine/ Millwright Maintenance Mechanic

4 Automobile Engineering and combination of various streams of Automobile Engineering, Relevant trade for PART B Qualifying Test to be selected from Mechanic Motor Vehicle/ Tractor Mechanic/ Mechanic Diesel/ Heat Engine/ Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Mechanic

5. HSC (10+2) with Physics and Maths, Relevant trade for PART B Qualifying Test to be selected from Physics and Mathematics

Computer Based Aptitude Test (Only for candidates who have opted for ALP)

Qualifying marks: The candidate needs to secure a minimum score of 42 marks in each of the test batteries to qualify. This is applicable to all candidates and no relaxation is permissible.

Candidates equal to 8 times number of ALP vacancies for each of the communities i.e. UR. OBC-NCL, SC and ST (including Ex. Service Man) shall be short listed for Computer Based AT (based on their performance in Part A of the Second Stage CBT subject to their qualifying the Part B of Second Stage CBT) from among the candidates who have opted for the post of ALP.

Candidates will have to qualify in each of the test battery of Computer Based AT for considering them for the post of ALP. The Computer Based Aptitude Test shall have questions and answer options only in English and Hindi. There shall be no negative marking in Computer Based AT.

The ALP merit list will be drawn only from amongst the candidates qualifying in the Aptitude Test, with 70% weightage for the marks obtained in the Part A of Second Stage CBT and 30% weightage for the marks obtained in Computer Based AT.

Candidates are advised to visit websites of RDSO (www.rdso.indianrailways.gov.in than go on Directorates, here go on Psycho Technical Directorate here go on Candidates Corner) for question patterns and other details of AT.

Based on the options and performance of candidates in part-A of the CBT subject to their qualifying the part-B of CBT (for Technician posts) and based on the performance of candidates in both part A of the CBT and Computer Based AT subject to their qualifying the part-B of CBT (for ALP), candidates equal to the number of vacancies will be called for Document verification.

Candidates to be asked for their category preference, and exam group in which they will appear in the given format:

 

RAIL NEWS CENTER

RAIL EMPLOYEE INFORMATION

May 17, 2023

Good News - Availability of Visitor Pass (Railway Board) in online SWAGATAM portal

भारत सरकार/GOVERNMENT OF INDIA रेल मंत्रालय/ MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS (रेलवे बोर्ड/RAILWAY BOARD)

CIRCULAR

Sub: Availability of Visitor Pass in SWAGATAM portal.

At present, the Ministry of Home Affairs’ (MHA) Reception Cell at Ground Floor in Rail Bhawan issues daily visitor passes after getting telephonic confirmation of the visitors’ identity from the concerned officers (JD/DS & above) or their personal staff, feeding in the visitor details into the SWAGATAM portal (https://swagatam.gov.in -developed by MHA), taking the visitors’ photographs and then issuing the entry passes. All these activities consume precious time and necessitates queueing up of people at the Reception counter.

  1. MHA has developed the SWAGATAM portal in such a way that even before arriving at Rail Bhawan, the visitors can login to the said portal with their mobile numbers & OTP, key in their required details and submit for getting visitor pass approved. Further, the concerned Officer in Rail Bhawan (or their personal staff) can login to the SWAGATAM portal through the Officer’s Parichay account (the same as for email.gov.in or eOffice accounts), and check and approve / reject the visitor passes. All of the above process is completely electronic with only printing of the passes physically by the Reception Cell. This will significantly speed up generating visitor passes.
  2. At the outset, all Officers of the rank of JD/DS and above whose details are not yet available in the SWAGATAM portal, may please furnish their complete details (full name, designation, email id—gov.in, mobile no., room no. and railway telephone) to G. Branch at the earliest for entering the same in the portal. All the Officers may also kindly take note of the process as in para 2 above and also apprise the same to their personal staff and to the persons intending to visit them so as to avoid queueing up of people at the Reception counter and save precious office time.

(Priya Gopalakrishnan) Deputy Secretary (G) Railway Board

  ORIGINAL ORDER  

RAIL NEWS CENTER

RAIL EMPLOYEE INFORMATION

Apr 25, 2023

Comprehensive Transfer Policy guidelines for tenure posting in Railway Board, RDSO, etc. – simplification req.

भारत सरकार GOVERNMENT OF INDIA रेल मंत्रालय MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS (रेलवे बोर्ड) (RAILWAY BOARD)

 

No.ERB-1/2013/2/70                      New Delhi, dated: 24.04.2023

CIRCULAR

Sub:- Comprehensive Transfer Policy guidelines for tenure posting in Railway Board, RDSO, etc. – simplification req.

Transfer/posting of Railway officers is presently governed by the Comprehensive Transfer Policy for Railway Officers, issued vide Board’s letters No. E(O)III/2014/PL/05 dated 31.08.2015 and 12.12.2018 r/w letters of even number dated 25.10.2018, 30.11.2018 & 17.12.2018.

2. After considering the issue to start the online Portal for inviting the applications for posting in Railway Board, RDSO and CTIs on tenure basis, it has been decided with the approval of the Competent Authority, to adopt the following procedure henceforth in this regard:-

- Applications for postings in Railway Board, RDSO and CTIs, will be submitted on HRMS portal through the link, named “Willingness for --Posting (Railway Board, RDSO, CTIs)”.

- Willing officers will need to apply through his/her individual HRMS account.

- As per the data available in HRMS regarding service/department and present grade of the officer, he/she will be considered for posts, he/she is eligible for.

- The officer can apply at any time during the year and these applications will be valid for one year.

- For filling up a post in Railway Board, RDSO and CTls, the process of selection will be initiated from amongst the list of willing officers available on HRMS, who have applied for transfer/posting through HRMS Portal. Further selection procedure will remain the same as existing on date.

- Facility to withdraw applications is also available.

3. All other instructions, as contained in Board’s aforesaid letters dated 31.08.2015, 12.12.2018, 25.10.2018, 30.11.2018 and 17.12.2018, will remain unaltered.

4. These instructions will be applicable with immediate effect. All proposals for transfer/ posting, for which vacancy notices are yet to be issued, may be processed as per the revised procedure as mentioned above.

5. All Zonal Railways/PUs are advised to circulate above instructions to all officers posted under their administrative control for information.

(V.S. Dahiya) Joint Secretary (Gaz.) Railway Board

  Original Order

RAIL NEWS CENTER

RAIL EMPLOYEE INFORMATION

 

Apr 19, 2023

Railway Board - Merger of OHE & PSI cadres of Electrical Department

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS (RAILWAY BOARD)

No. E(MPP)2022/1/28 Dated: 172 .04.2023

The General Managers, All Indian Railways, including Production Units and Others

Sub: Merger of OHE & PSI cadres of Electrical Department

Rationalization of posts is periodically done, based on manpower requirement. Manpower planning requires continuous review in view of changing workload conditions, introduction of new technologies, working systems, creation of new assets etc. Work studies are regularly conducted for rationalization of manpower in Railways for various activities. This exercise enables Indian Railways to utilize its human resources in most efficient and productive.manner.

2. Based on above, principally the merger of OHE and PSI cadres of TRD is under consideration in Board in view the following advantages. -

a. Better productivity of the staff b. Effective utilization of the available resources c. Increase in promotional avenues

d. Improvement in the knowledge of the staff in OHE and PSI matters

e. Beneficial for early TRD restoration work in the electrified section by utilizing more available staff in both fields of OHE and PSI f, Management and booking of the staff for different work will be easier

3. The matter was also examined by Electrical Dte. of Board in consultation with the Zonal Railways and as per the feedback received, most of the Zonal Railways have agreed to the proposal. In fact, in some of the Zonal Railways, the cadres are already reportedly merged.

4. Both the Federations have also in principle, agreed to the proposal of merger of the two cadres.

5. In view of above, in-principle merger of OHE and PS! Cadre has been agreed upon with a stipulation that retraining, seniority issues etc arising out of proposed merger may be sorted out in consultation with unions

6. All the references, related clarifications/queries, if any, regarding merger of the two cadres are to be made to Establishment Directorate (Non-Gazetted) of Railway Board.

Sd-

(A.K.Das)  Joint Director E(MPP)

RAIL NEWS CENTER RAIL EMPLOYEE INFORMATION

Apr 18, 2023

Know About - Wait list Tickets & Their Confirmation Priority Policy

Based on some predefined rules, railway allots different types of waitlist quota on tickets when ticket is not confirmed.

GNWL (General Waiting List):  Confirmation for GNWL ticket is on highest priority. You may get a GNWL quota, if you are starting your journey from a station close to train source station and ending your journey at a station close to train destination station.

RLWL (Remote Location Waiting List) -  Important stations in the route of train are marked as remote location and each remote location stations have fixed number of reserved seats.  RLWL is allotted when passenger is starting journey from important intermediate station. Tickets with RLWL waiting list has less chances of confirmation since it depends on the cancellations of confirmed tickets corresponding to remote location station. All remote location stations prepare their own chart 2-4 hours before the actual departure of train.

RLGN (Remote Location General Waiting List) - RLGN is alias of RLWL. After booking seats under RLWL quota, on ticket, it is marked as RLGN.

CKWL or TQWL (Tatkal Waiting List): If you are booking your ticket under tatkal Scheme, you get CKWL status when tickets are unreserved. Tatkal tickets directly gets confirmed and doesn’t go through RAC status unlike other quotas It is important to note that GNWL tickets will confirm first and then CKWL. Hence there is a very less chance that a CKWL ticket will be confirmed.

Apart from these  popular waiting list quotas, Indian Railways has defined some other W/L quotas in long journey trains. 

PQWL (Pooled Quota Waiting List) - PQWL is alloted if passenger starts  journey from source station or other intermediate station of train but terminate  journey at some intermediate station before destination station of train. There is a single Pooled Quota for entire run of train which is shared by all small enroute stations and hence it has very less chances of confirmation.

RSWL (Roadside Station Waiting List) - RSWL is allotted when berths or seats are booked by the originating station for journeys up to the road side station only up-to the extent of accommodation earmarked for that Road Side quota. In such cases, distance restriction does not apply while booking. This waiting list has also very less chances of confirmation.

RQWL - (Request Waiting List) - RQWL is allotted if ticket is booked from one intermediate station to another intermediate station and when it is not covered by neither general quota, remote location quota nor pooled quota. A RQWL ticket may get confirmation only when there is a cancellation of confirmed ticket for a passenger travelling from the originating station to that intermediate station.

 

Public Facilities

RAIL EMPLOYEE INFORMATION

Apr 15, 2023

Guidelines to conduct the selection for promotion in Driver Cadre in RPF/RPSF.

भारत सरकार रेल मंत्रालय (रेलवे बोर्ड) GOVERNMENT OF INDIA . INISTRY OF RAILWAYS (RAILWAY BOARD)

No. 2021/Sec(E)/PM-3/1

New Delhi, dated: 05.04.2023

Principal Chief Security Commissioner/RPF All Zonal Railways, RPSF, ICF, CLW, RCF, KRCL, CORE, RDSO

IG (Con)-ECoR/NR

Director, JR RPF Academy, TC/MLY & ZTI/KGP

Sub: Guidelines to conduct the selection for promotion in Driver Cadre in RPF/RPSF. In exercise of the powers conferred under Section 21 of the RPF Act, 1957, RPF (Amendment) Rules, 2021 have been notified and circulated to all concerned vide Railway Board’s letter No.2018/Sec(E)/PM/3/24 Pt. 1 dated 03.08.2021.

Amended Schedule-IV of RPF Rules, 1987 (as amended in 2021) provides for selection for promotion to the post of Head Constable (MT), Assistant Sub-Inspector (MT) and Sub-Inspector (MT) in RPF/RPSF.

Guidelines for the conduct of selection for promotion to the post of Head Constable (MT), Assistant Sub-Inspector (MT) and Sub-Inspector (MT) for Driver Cadre in RPF/RPSF are as under:

1. Eligibility Criteria:

The eligibility criteria for selection for promotion in Driver Cadre is prescribed in Schedule-IV of RPF Rules, 1987.

2. Nomination of Nodal Officer:

a. DG/RPF shall nominate a Nodal PCSC/IG/CSC/DIG or Dy.CSC (whoever applicable) who will supervise the entire selection process and co-ordinate with other PCSCs in order to ensure timely, transparent and smooth conduct of selection.

b. Nodal PCSC/IG/CSC/DIG or Dy.CSC shall fix a common date for issuing notification by all Zones.

c. Instruction of Nodal officer related to selection shall be binding for all zones.

3. Composition of Departmental Promotion Committees (DPC): Nodal PCSC/IG/CSC/DIG or Dy.CSC shall nominate members of the committee as prescribed in RPF Rules, 1987 on the basis of suggestion received from DG/RPF. In addition to the members of DPC, there shall be an expert to be co-opted in the DPC, who should be of higher rank to the post for which selection is being conducted. The expert may be co-opted from RPF/RPSF or Mechanical Department of Railway.

i. One of the members of the DPC should belong to SC/ST community.

ii. None of the members of the DPC should be directly subordinate to another member of the said committee.

iii. The senior most member of the DPC shall act as the Chairperson. However, the responsibility will devolve on all members of the Departmental Promotion Committee jointly and severally.

iv. In every DPC at least one of the members should have working knowledge of Hindi/ Rajbhasha

v. Nodal PCSC/IG/ESE/DIG or Dy.CSC may nominate suitable officers as Members of the DPC from any Zone/RPSF in consultation with DG/RPF.

vi. Members of the Departmental Promotion Committee shalt record a certificate that none of their close relation is under consideration for promotion neither do they have any interest in any of the candidates. Close relation in this context would mean parents, sons, daughters, brothers, sisters and nephews/nieces, aunts/uncles, cousins & relative by marriage of the first order.

4. Assessment of vacancies:

(i) The number of vacancies, for which selection is to be made shall be calculated in accordance with Rule 70.4 of RPF Rules, 1987 and will be based on roster points in the register earmarked for this purpose.

(ii) Under Rule 70, all the candidates are to be called for the selection who have already completed and are completing the residency period prescribed for that post within the next 12 months from the date of nomination of DPC, subject to the condition that they shall be promoted only on the date of completion of residency period of that rank & also on the basis of the availability of vacancy, DAR & Vigilance clearance. However, under Rule 72 all the candidates shall have to complete the residency period on the date of notification.

(iii) Vacancies are to be assessed correctly. Inflation of vacancies would invite disciplinary action.

5. Mode of selection:

The DPC may conduct written test in offline mode on the basis of a Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) Test. Candidates qualifying the MCQ test shall be considered for assessment of Service Record. MCQ Test will be conducted by an agency hired for this purpose.

6. Engagement of Agency to conduct MCQ Test:

i. Nodal PCSC/IG/CSC/DIG or Dy.CSC in consultation with Chairman DPC shall engage a reputed agency for conducting MCQ Test, having past experience of working with Government departments/RRB/RRC. Due process as mentioned in Railway Board’s letter No. 2021/Sec(E)/PM-01/1 dated 21.10.2021 may be followed for finalization of agency. Chairman DPC shall finalize modalities of terms & conditions and procedure with the nominated/selected agency and make an agreement accordingly. In case of any doubt about the fairness of hired agency, the investigation will be conducted, After the allegations are established, the hired agency will be blacklisted.

ii. Financial implication for holding MCQ test and other activities regarding selection shall be processed and arranged by the Nodal PCSC/IG/CSC/DIG or Dy. CSC. The finance of Nodal Officer will be deemed as the associated finance for this purpose. The expenditure incurred on MCQ test and other process shall be shared by all zones proportionately in accordance to the vacancies of the zone.

7. Application by the Candidates:

a. Before applying for promotions under Rule 72, candidates shall assess their suitability for the subject selection in accordance to the extant rules.

b. For promotions under Rule 70, eligible candidates shall submit their unconditional willingness/unwillingness for the said selection.

c. The mode of application shall be offline.

8. Centre of MCQ Test:

Chairperson DPC shall decide the center /centers as per number of candidates.

9. Identity of candidates:

The list of applicants, who are found eligible to appear for selection shall prepared by the Zonal Railways and forwarded to the Chairperson DP —~TFhe-Chairperson shall consolidate the list and forward to the agency for allotment of Roll Numbers. List of candidates, on a proforma prescribed by Chairperson DPC, shall be circulated by concerned PCSCs at Post level and shall also be uploaded on Zonal Railway’s website. The list of candidates should have column for Name and UIN of the candidate, date of appointment, date of enlistment, zone and other relevant information like number of chances availed till date, etc. All candidates shall bring their Official photo identity card, in addition to the command certificates, bearing their signature for identification, to prevent impersonation. It shall be the responsibility of concerned PCSC to ensure that all candidates are provided with official photo identity cards in addition to command certificates bearing their signature authentication when they come for MCQ test.

10. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) Test:

a. The MCQ examination shall be of 90 minutes duration. Date and timing of MCQ test in all zonal railways shall be same. If in any zone, number of candidates cannot be accommodated in One test center, two or more centers should be engaged.

b. Venue and timing of the MCQ test shall be fixed in consultation with the hired agency depending upon the number of candidates.

c. The hired agency shall make all the logistic arrangements including CCTV recordings.

d. . The Nodal Officer shall nominate RPF officers not below the rank of Sr. Scale to act as Observer at examination center. The Observers may take one Group ‘C’ ministerial staff of his/her choice as Supervisor to assist him/her during MCQ test.

e. All the officers nominated as Observer as well as Supervisors shall submit a certificate that none of their family members/close relations are appearing for the said selection and that they have no interest in any of the candidates.

f. An attendance sheet for all the candidates appearing in the MCQ test shall be prepared which shall carry the signature of the candidates and the invigilators. Attendance taken will be shared with PCSCs in due course.

g. The entire sequence of the events in the MCQ test shall be video graphed/recorded on CCTV cameras as evidence for future record.

h. The Observer shall ensure that the candidates do not take any book, paper or electronic device which may be used as an unfair means into the examination hall.

i. Any candidate, invigilator or any other personnel of RPF found using / helping anyone to use unfair means or indulging in any other misconduct shall be dealt under the Discipline and Appeal Rules.

j. No candidate will be allowed to enter the examination hall beyond the stipulated timenotified by DPC.

11. Trade Test:

Allocation of marks for Trade test shall be as under:

Stage  & Marks Driving Skill - 20 Mechanical Knowledge about vehicles - 10 Skill to conduct minor repairs -  10

However, the Trade test will be “qualifying” in nature and marks obtained in trade test will not be counted towards assessing the total marks obtained by the candidate in the selection. The qualifying marks will be 60% for General/UR candidates and 50% for SC/ST candidates. Video recording of the Trade Test shall be ensured.

12. Documentation:

All the examination related works should be done with proper documentation, avoiding verbal orders at any stage of the selection process. Confidentiality must be maintained in the entire process.

13. Consideration of members under suspension or against whom departmental criminal proceedings are pending:

The members of the Force who are under suspension, against whom a charge sheet has been issued and disciplinary proceedings are pending and those against whom prosecution under criminal charge is pending, shall also be called for selection and their suitability for promotion should be assessed as in the ordinary course. In this regard procedure and guidelines provided in DOP&T rules may be followed.

14. Questions for MCQ Test:

i. All questions will be ‘Objective Multiple Choice Type’ with four alternative responses (answers). All questions will be in both Hindi and English. All questions shall carry equal marks i.e. 1 (one) mark each.

ii. Questions shall be arranged in such a way that each candidate gets the same set of Questions and has same four options for answers but both the Questions and the Answers are differently serial numbered. This will ensure that no two candidates will have the same sequence of Questions. Not only this, sequence of four options for answers shall be different for different candidates. This arrangement will leave no scope for candidates for copying with each other.

iii. The question paper for written examination shall be prepared by the Chairman DPC. The question paper shall consist of 80 questions and candidates should be asked to attempt all questions. Questions shall be of following nature:

a. 8 questions will be on official language policy and rules. b. 30 questions will be aimed at testing the candidate’s knowledge in respect to Motor Vehicle Act/Rules and Motor Mechanics. c. Remaining questions i.e. 42 questions should be aimed at testing professional knowledge of the candidate. questions on RP (UP) Act, Railway Act, RTI Act, Crime on Railways, General Organization including RPF Act 1957, RPF Rules 1987, Disaster Management and Fire Fighting, First Aid, Explosives and IEDs (FFIED), Working of Commercial and other Railway departments, Social Psychology, Soft skill Management or any other relevant topic etc. should be asked.

iv. In accordance with the instructions and guidelines, Chairperson DPC shall set question papers based on the topics mentioned as above.

v. Candidates shall be awarded 01 (one) mark for each correct answer. However, 1/3 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer (negative marking) in case of selection under Rule 72. No mark shall be awarded or deducted for questions not attempted.

15. Evaluation :

a. Evaluation shall be done by the hired agency. b. After end of MCQ test, answer key shall also be provided so that candidate can match their answers.

16. Supplementary test:

i) Supplementary tests are required to be held only for selections to be held under Rule 70 for candidates who fail to appear in the test for the following reasons inter-alia other administrative compulsions:

a) Delayed receipt of notice of selection/examination by the candidates on account of deployment in remote areas and distant locations

b) Failure on the part of administration to spare the candidates in time to appear in the examination.

c) Concerned member of the force remaining on sick list duly complying with the provisions as envisaged in Rule 272 of RPF Rules, 1987.

d) Any other reason as deemed genuine by the Chairperson DPC, the reason should be recorded in writing.

ii) Members of the force who express their unwillingness in writing at any stage shall not be called for supplementary test nor any supplementary test is required to be held when all the members of the force falling within the zone of consideration either take the test or submit unwillingness in writing.

iii) The date of supplementary test which ideally should be held within one month of the first test, shall be notified along with the notification for the main selection.

iv) Any intentional non-appearance in the examination or false sick reporting and non compliance of provisions of Rule 272 of RPF Rules, 1987 with an intention to delay the completion of the selection process and holding a supplementary selection shall be viewed as a misconduct and will attract disciplinary proceedings.

v) The supplementary meeting of the Selection Board should as far as possible, be attended by the same officers who would have been present at the first selection.

vi) Not more than one supplementary selection due to non intimation/late intimation of dates of tests, administrative failure to relieve the staff for the test, etc., shall be held.

vii) No supplementary test shall be held for selections to be held U/R 72.

17. Records of Service:

i. Within 15 days of circulation of list of eligible candidates, concerned PCSCs shall forward APAR records of preceding 05 years of all the candidates of their zone to DPC.

ii. As provided under Rule 71.2 of RPF Rules 1987, a maximum of 20 marks is allotted to assessment of record of service.

iii. PCSCs shall supply attested photo copies of APARs to the selection committee. PCSC shall further certify that all copies of supplied APARs have been provided to the staff concerned and their representations, if any, have been disposed off.

iv. The record of service shall be assessed by taking into consideration the APARs or the annual assessment entries in the CSR of preceding 5 years of those candidates who qualify MCQ test. Marks shall be allotted for the APAR grading as per following norm:

Grading & Marks Allotted

Outstanding - 04 Very Good - 3.5 Good - 03 Average  - 2.5 Below average -  0

v. When one or more APARs have not been written for any reason during the relevant period, the DPC should consider the APARs of years preceding the period in question. If, in any case, even these are not available, the DPC should take the APARs of lower grade in to account to complete the number of APARs required to be considered. If this is also not possible, all the available APARs should be taken in to account.

18. Preparation of Selection Proceedings and Panel:

a. The selection proceedings should be drawn up as soon as the examination of record of service is over. There should be no delay in drawing up the proceedings. Drawing of the proceeding should not be left to someone who is not a member of the Departmental Promotion Committee.

b. A Broad sheet containing marks of MCQ test and records of service should be prepared for each zone separately. All three members of the DPC shall prepare and affix their signature on the Broad sheet and the selection proceedings, which she Outline the entire selection process and the manner in which selection was conducted, the position of SC/ST

c. There should be no cutting and overwriting in the proceedings.

d. Strict compliance of the guidelines issued from time to time in respect of reservation in promotion should be adhered to while preparing the promotion panel.

Panel U/R 70:

e. A list of successful candidates in the descending order of seniority shall be prepared from the broadsheet. A panel from amongst the list of successful candidates will be drawn on the basis of vacancies for each zone separately and in compliance of the provisions laid down under Rules 70 and 71 of the RPF Rules, 1987 and extant rules regarding reservation policy.

Panel U/R 72:

f. A list of successful candidates in the descending order of marks shall be prepared from the broadsheet. A panel from amongst the list of successful candidates will be drawn on the basis of vacancies for each zone separately and in compliance of the provisions laid down under Rules 70 and 71 of the RPF Rules, 1987 and extant rules regarding reservation policy.

g.  In case two or more candidates secure equal marks out of total 100 marks (80 marks for written examination + 20 marks for record of service) seniority may be taken into consideration in such cases. Thus, the candidate/candidates higher in the seniority shall be placed above his junior in the panel.

19. Approval of the Panel:

a. The recommended panel along with selection proceedings, broad sheets, the sample question paper and correct answers and attendance sheet shall be sent by the Chairman of the DPC to the authority nominating the DPC for approval of the panel in accordance with Rule 70.7 of RPF Rules, 1987. Once the competent authority approves the panel, it should be notified immediately for information of all concerned.

b. In the event of the empanelled successful candidate being found facing disciplinary proceedings or punishment or criminal proceeding, his/her case should be made into a “sealed cover case” in which procedure of DOP&T instructions may be followed.

c. A panel drawn in accordance with the Rules shall remain operative for a period of one year from the date of its approval or till it is exhausted, whichever is earlier. In working out the period of one year as the maximum life of the panel, the period covered by stay Order of the Court, if any, should be excluded.

d. The retention of the name of a member of the Force on a panel will be subject to his/her continued suitability for the post in question. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, the removal of the name of the member of the Force from the panel would require specific approval of the authority next above the one which initially approved the panel.

e. A panel once approved should not, normally, be cancelled or amended. If it is subsequently found out that there were procedural irregularities or other defects, which may necessitate amending or canceling the panel, then this should be done after obtaining the approval of the authority next higher than the one that approved the panel.

f. Before ordering actual promotion, the concerned authorities will have to obtain D&AR and Vigilance clearance for those empanelled candidates who are selected for promotion.

20. General:

a. Whenever a DPC is constituted, the Nodal PCSC/IG/CSC/DIG or Dy.CSC shall make available all relevant guidelines and concerned circulars of DOP&T and Ministry of

b. The DPC shall be collectively and severally responsible for the fair and smooth selection process.

c. A checklist, of the events/steps to be followed during the selection process, shall be prepared by the DPC in order to ensure that no step in selection procedure is left out.

d. Any representation, from any of the candidates about the selection not done properly, shall be forwarded to the Chairperson of the DPC who will take necessary action to dispose off the representation.

e. Every effort shall be made by the concerned PCSCs, Nodal PCSC/IG/CSC/DIG/ Dy.CSC and DPC to ensure timely selection and promotion of enrolled members of the Force as well as filling up the vacancies in time.

f. Based on attendance sheet of MCQ test, a remark on physical/digital service record of the concerned RPF staff shall be made that he/she had availed first/second/third/fourth chance for the selection under Rule 72 to the rank of HC(MT)/ASI(MT) on date mentioned.

g. The Nodal PCSC/IG/CSC/DIG or Dy.CSC will nominate one officer under him as the custodian of documents generated during the selection process who will be responsible for their safe custody.

h. The extant retention schedule will be followed for weeding out the documents of selection after expiry of prescribed retention period unless the results are needed for any DAR/vigilance/Criminal case or any ongoing court case. i. DG/RPF may modify/alter any of the above instructions to meet circumstantial exigencies.

(Sanjay Chander) Director General/RPF

  ORIGNAL ORDER   RAIL NEWS CENTER RAIL EMPLOYEE INFORMATION

Oct 25, 2022

Posting & Tenure of Vigilance / Investigating / Enquiry Inspectors on Zonal Railways

1. Posting of officials in the Vigilance Organisation of the Zonal Railways should be made in consultation with the CVO concerned. 2. These posts have been kept as tenure posts. The normal period of tenure should be 4 years which could be extended upto 6 years in individual cases meriting such a consideration by the GM of the concerned Railway/ Production Unit etc. based on the recommendation of the concerned CVO.

3. The four year term (extendable to six years) should be the overall period which a railway servant or one taken on deputation from other department or State Government can spend in the Vigilance Organisation. As an example, if a railway servant had worked as a Vigilance Inspectors in a Zonal Railway and thereafter also in the Vigilance Directorate of the Railway Board for a total period of four years in all, he should not be continued further in the Vigilance Organisation except in individual cases of special merit and that too upto a maximum of six years. However, the tenure for Enquiry Inspector will be independent of the period spent by them earlier in the Vigilance Organisation in other capacities such as Investigating  Inspectors / Vigilance Inspectors, etc.

4. Railways/PUs etc. in exceptional cases may recommend to the Board extension of tenure beyond six years of any individual cases of Vigilance Inspectors etc. provided any one of the following criteria is fulfilled:

(a) the person is due to retire within a period of one year or so and it may not be convenient for him to rehabilitate himself during this period in his parent department; (b) no suitable person could be selected inspite of positive efforts made by the Railway and it is intended to extend his tenure by a short period to cover the process of selection, etc. (actual efforts of the railway already made be listed) (c) due to very good cases of investigation against senior people, it is feared that the Vigilance Inspector may be victimized on rehabilitation and efforts to find an alternative position for him have so far failed. The efforts made and genuine reasons for which the fear exists, will have to be enunciated.

(d) In such cases, prior approval of the CVO of the Ministry of Railways would be required before continuing the V.I./I.I. beyond six years.

5. Rotation of officials working in sensitive posts: Posts in the Vigilance Organisation are classified as sensitive warranting the rotation of officials as per extant instructions.

 

 ALSO SEE

Oct 20, 2022

SALIENT FEATURES - ALTERNATE TRAIN ACCOMMODATION SCHEME -"VIKALP"

With a view to provide confirmed accommodation to waitlisted passengers and also to ensure optimal utilisation of available accommodation, Alternate Train Accommodation Scheme (ATAS) known as 'VIKALP' has been introduced in all Mail/Express trains.

In this Scheme wait listed passenger has to give an option at the time of booking of ticket & those passenger subject to availability of vacant accommodation. Broad features of the scheme are as under:-

1• The passengers can exercise the option for getting shifted to a train upto 72 hours of scheduled departure of original train in which waitlisted ticket was booked.

2• All the passengers booked under the scheme are given an option for getting alternate accommodation irrespective of the fact whether the boarding / destination station of the passenger are originating / terminating / roadside station.

3• No extra charges are taken from passenger or any refund is provided for difference of fare.

4• Only those VIKALP opted passengers who remain fully Waitlisted after charting are considered for allotment in the alternate train.

5• Either all passengers of a PNR or none is transferred to alternate train in same class. The passenger can be considered for shifting to a train leaving from any station amongst the duster of stations defined by Railways based on the convenience of the passengers to a station serving the destination station on the same analogy.

6• Waitlisted passengers of original train are not allowed to board the original train if allotted alternate accommodation.

7• Passengers once provided alternate accommodation in alternate train are treated as normal passengers in alternate train and are eligible for up gradation.

8• When a VIKALP opted passenger opts to cancel, after he / she has been given an alternate accommodation, he/she is treated as a CONFIRMED passenger and the cancellation rules will apply accordingly.

9• No refund for difference of fare between the original train and the alternate train, including Tatkal charges, if any, is given to re-allocated passengers or realisted from them.

10• Once a VIKALP passenger has been allotted alternate accommodation, journey modification is not permitted.

11• When a passenger who has been allotted alternate accommodation has not performed his journey in the alternate train, he can claim for refunds by filing a TDR request.

  ALSO SEE

Jul 15, 2022

Transfer / posting of officers / officials working in vigilance unit

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA

MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS

(RAILWAY BOARD) No. 2017N-1)ALSL/1/1 New Delhi, Date 11.07.22

Sub: Transfer/ posting of officers/officials working in vigilance unit

CVC circular no.020-VGL-054/502950 dt. 03.02.22 on the above subject is enclosed herewith for perusal & necessary action. In this connection, it is advised that for officers/officials who have completed three years, a review may be undertaken for extension of tenure on the basis of factors such as integrity, efficiency & requirement for work on hand. After review, if considered necessary, a proposal for continuation of such officers/officials beyond three years in vigilance unit shall be submitted to Board vigilance for obtaining the concurrence of PED/Vig.

This issues with the approval of Competent Authority.

(Srinivas Malladi)

Director Vigilance Engg

Railway Board

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